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Why can we say “I have been TO somewhere” ?

My logic: "have gone" would mean that you are still where you went to "have been" means you are no longer there but somewhere else.



What I do not understand is how the verb "be" works here. You would say - "I am in " so 'I have been in " ok. But "I have been TO " ? It is correct to say 'I have been in " - which you would say if someone were to ask where you had been.

Have you ever been TO ? >> Yes I have been TO .

We learn that the prepositions following the verbs are : -



to go TO / to be IN or AT surely?



I am in

I was in

I have been in



( But not "I am going in ..." apart from diving or surgery.)

The perfect tense is the only on where this is possible. (I think)

Is this a grammatical exception, is there an historical reason, why is this a possibility?

Thanks
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has/have been to is an idiom meaning has/have visited. Idioms are often, by nature, grammatical exceptions.

Note that if you have visited Chicago, you went there, you saw it, maybe you spent some time there, and you returned to your home. If you live in Chicago, it makes no sense to say that you have visited Chicago because Chicago is your home. If you are now standing in Chicago, you cannot say that you have visited it, because you have not yet returned home. After you return home, you can say that you have visited Chicago.

The same applies to "I have been to ..." as applies to "I have visited ...".
LouiseTIt is correct to say 'I have been in Paris" - which you would say if someone were to ask where you had been.
It is correct to say "I have been in Paris". This answers a question about my whereabouts.

-- Where have you been lately? I haven't seen you for so long.
-- I have been in Paris. I just got back yesterday.

"I have been to Paris" answers a question about my life experiences.

-- Have you ever visited a foreign city?
-- Yes, I have. I have been to Paris.

CJ
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In this case, is it correct ?
he has been in Rio de Janeiro on November (past)

tks