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(please correct me if you find mistakes in my writtings, i am trying to learn)

i have some questions regarding will have and would have. an example, 'By the end of the decade, scientists will have discovered a cure for influenza'.

1. in this sentence the part 'have discovered' is from present perfect tense and will is from simple future tense and it forms future perfect tense right?

2. is 'will have' together a modal auxiliary verb? if it is modal auxiliarry verb then how many modal auxiliary verbs are in this sentence?

3. another example-

It's half past five. Dad will have finished work by now and

It was half past five. Dad would have finished work.

in the first sentence i can tell that this is in future perfect tense but in the second tense is it in simple present tense? if it is simple present tense then how i will describe the part 'would have' there?

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Sajid1234Dad will have finished work by now.
Dad would have finished work by now.

1) [will]modal auxiliary [have]perfect auxiliary [finished]main verb (past participle)

2) [would]modal auxiliary [have]perfect auxiliary [finished]main verb (past participle)

3) may have finished; must have finished; should have finished; ...

The verb phrases "will have finished" and "would have finished" in 1) and 2), and all such phrases as exemplified in 3) as well, are called modal perfect tenses — not simple present tenses. You can only have at most one modal verb in a clause, and it must be the first verb in the verb phrase.

Example 1) above has the special name 'future perfect tense'. Unfortunately, in English grammar the verb phrases in 2) and 3) have no special names. If you want to refer specifically to the verb tense in 2), say it's a "modal perfect tense with would".

(will have discovered follows the same logic. It also has the future perfect tense.)

CJ

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Sajid1234(please correct me if you find mistakes in my writtings, i am trying to learn)

Glad you asked. Every written English sentence begins with a capital letter. There are no exceptions. The pronoun "I" is always capitalized. (There is one other one-letter word that is always capitalized—the obsolete "O".) You spelled "writings" wrong; you double the consonant in words that end in that consonant. Every written (that is a past participle and does not therefore use the spelling rule for endings) English sentence ends in a suitable mark of punctuation, a period (full stop in Britain), a question mark, or an exclamation point. There might actually be double or single quotation marks at the end, but there will always be one of the three I mentioned right before them. There are no exceptions to this rule, either. There was no capital letter or punctuation in my parenthetical comment above, "(that is a past participle and does not therefore use the spelling rule for endings)" because it is not a sentence, it being inside parentheses (brackets) within a sentence. Come to think of it, you might call that an exception.

Sajid12341. in this sentence the part 'have discovered' is from present perfect tense and will is from simple future tense and it forms future perfect tense right?

That's one way of looking at it.

Sajid12342. is 'will have' together a modal auxiliary verb? if it is modal auxiliarry verb then how many modal auxiliary verbs are in this sentence?

No, and there are none.

Sajid1234in the first sentence i can tell that this is in future perfect tense but in the second tense is it in simple present tense?

You meant "second sentence", and there are two sentences. I don't see any present tense in any of them. "Would" is considered modal, but it is also considered separately as the past form of "will", which is what you are seeing here.

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thank you so much for correcting my mistakes. i made a mistkae in typing. it will be simple past tense on the second sentence
Sajid1234 thank you so much for correcting my mistakes. i made a mistkae in typing. it will be simple past tense on the second sentence

OMG. I typed all that because you said you wanted to learn. Where are the capital letters and the final period?

Sorry, I was in hurry when writing down this comment. But don't worry, I have noted all of this

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 CalifJim's reply was promoted to an answer.
is there any difference between perfect auxiliarries, primary auxiliaries and to have verbs?

Primary auxiliaries: do, have, be

Basic forms of do: do, does, did
Basic forms of have: have, has, had
Basic forms of be: am, is, are, was, were

Modal auxiliaries: will, would, shall, should, can, could, may, might, must

Auxiliary do is used to form questions and negations.1,2
Auxiliary have is used to form perfect tenses.3
Auxiliary be is used in two ways:
........................... to form continuous tenses4
........................... to form the passive voice5

CJ

1when no other auxiliary is available in the sentence
2must be followed by a bare infinitive
3must be followed by a past participle (-en form)
4must be followed by an -ing form
5must be followed by a past participle (-en form)

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Is to have verbs called perfect auxiliarries or there is some dofference?
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